Forgive me for my confusing title, but I hope I can make myself clear on this...
I have a question about SEO and javascript.
I've read that GET requests do get indexed by google. Right?
If I have this code:
<html>
<body>
<div id="filter"></div>
<div id="products"></div>
</body>
</html>
I update the filter and the products-divs with javascript (puts products in there based on selected filter).
If I for example have a filter that is (from javascript) requesting (with AJAX / GET-request) adress http://domain/category-id/red and the result from ajax result is:
<div id="products">red product1 in category-id</div>
<div id="products">red product2 in category-id</div>
<div id="products">red product3 in category-id</div>
<div id="products">red product4 in category-id</div>
Would this be the same from a googles perspective (I believe it would because javascript does a get request to the same data)?
I type in `http://domain/category-id/red`
in the browser and I'll get:
<html>
<body>
<div id="filter"></div>
<div id="products">
<div id="products">red product1 in category-id</div>
<div id="products">red product2 in category-id</div>
<div id="products">red product3 in category-id</div>
<div id="products">red product4 in category-id</div>
</div>
</body>
</html>
(Yes, I understand it might not be the best way to use javascript without having a fallback, but this is a question I would love if someone could clarify for me)
Or would it matter at all? I've just read that internal links arent that important!? (Is that really true?) but external are...
